Originally Posted By: MusicStudent
Noel, not to be picky, but I don't agree with your interpretation. Mainly because when I play a C/F I don't hear the FMaj7sus2. The voicing is not equivalent. Of course BIAB does not know the difference between a C triad in first inversion with an F in the bass versus a C triad with F in the bass, so that may be the best advice here, but my ears hear the difference.


Hi Dan,

My comment was written from a classical harmony perspective. From this viewpoint, the inversion of a chord is determined by the lowest note. This stands out to the ear. In an orchestra, this note is usually played by cellos and double basses. While the inversion of the notes that sit on top of this bass note can vary the sonic texture, the overall inversion of a chord and its harmonic movement is determined by the bass note. The below video explains this quite well (2:58 to 4:40 is worth looking at).



For a solo guitar player, a chord's inversion is solely controlled by the way the notes on the guitar are played. In a group, though, the bass guitar ultimately controls the overall chord inversion.

Apologies if I've created some confusion.

All the best,
Noel



MY SONGS...
Audiophile BIAB 2026