@MAC..."In the real world of Music Theory, there is no such thing as a "Verse and a Chorus" as being separate. Those are terms used to describe Lyrics, not music. In actuality, the Verse AND the Chorus represents only a Chorus, musically speaking."

With great respect Mac, I can't agree with you on the above.

"Verses" and/or "Choruses" may or may not have lyrics. Instrumentals of course, have no lyrics at all so if those sections only related to lyrics, there would be no such thing as instrumental music.

And learned musicians in the jazz and "pop" worlds use "verse" "chorus" terms differently and yet quite correctly for their respective versions of music.

So, there really isn't ONE correct definition of those terms in theory. It depends on the genre.

I also hold that versus and choruses of the MUSIC have, by definition, a quite different character musically and to the ear...are quite distinguishable...as would be the "bridge" or "middle 8" as bridges are sometimes called.

Just to go one step further to say that "lyrics"...which aren't "music"...but rather are poetic...have stanzas not versus or choruses.

All the above is why single composers are properly cited as "Words and Music by...." While co-composers are "Words by X and Music by Y".

Having said all THAT...it is nevertheless true that co-authors of a composition have an undivided interest in the copyright to BOTH the words and music regardless.

Best,
Jim